[PLUG-TALK] Fair Use, etc.

J.A. Henshaw jeff at jhenshaw.com
Thu Mar 28 22:03:45 UTC 2002


Russ Johnson wrote:

> On Thu, 2002-03-28 at 12:55, J.A. Henshaw wrote:
> 
>>I am pointing out that you do not own the land under the 
>>home today, when you "buy" a home.
>>
> 
> Why do you say that? When I have in my possession a deed to a property
> described in the county records, do I not own the property described?
> 


You have exclusive right to use the land,  as long as you:

pay your taxes (rent)
follow the building codes ( setbacks, fencelines, etc)
the health codes (septic, water etc)
the penal codes ( grow marijuana, etc)

Build a shed with a concrete slab underneath? Got your 
permission from the city?

What else do you "own" that you need permission to do things 
with?

However,  the above is food for thought,  and not meant to 
be proof.

I sense that you are genuinely interested in this and not 
merely being rhetorical,  so if you want the entire 
enchilada I will be more than happy to give you the history 
and the proof.


> If I have an undeveloped property deeded to me, do I own nothing?
> 


You have exclusive use pending conditions set forth by the 
owner of the land,  the city or county in which your deed is 
recorded in.


> 
>>Oh really?  Again,  I think the rest of the world agrees 
>>that Marx was a communist.
>>
> 
> No, Marx was a socialist. His dream was communism, achieved through
> socialist methods. 
> 
> America is more socialist now than it was 100 years ago. 
> 
> 


Same thing, whatever you say.  Is there a significant 
distinction?

Either one is antithetical to the constitution.

-- 
Democracy is when two wolves and a sheep vote on what they 
will have for lunch.





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