[PLUG-TALK] Pronouncing 'v' in Spanish

John Jason Jordan johnxj at gmx.com
Sat Nov 28 12:31:24 PST 2020

On Sat, 28 Nov 2020 11:40:37 -0800
Denis Heidtmann <denis.heidtmann at gmail.com> dijo:

>Thanks, John.
>As an aside, I note your statement "No knowledge of Spanish is
>required." means I am qualified.  Does that mean that someone with
>knowledge of Spanish is not qualified? Another linguistics question.

Well, human languages do not use mathematical concepts of negative and
positive, i.e., two negatives equals a positive. In language two or more
negatives are normally still negative (multiple negation.) Thus was
the case in Anglo Saxon, and it perseveres in certain varieties of
present day English. (In Anglo Saxon using additional negatives merely
made the negation more emphatic.)

So here you are trying to think that your new utterance 'with knowledge
of Spanish' must be the negative of the former sentence. But you are
thinking like a mathematician; a linguist would never make that
assumption. :)

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