[PLUG-TALK] A question of ISP behaviors

wes plug at the-wes.com
Thu Nov 3 19:11:59 UTC 2016


It's not that outbound mail "bypasses" spam filtering, it's that the two
processes are completely different. Totally different sets of rules are
used to judge the worthiness of inbound vs outbound mail.

Spamcop.net has a form where you can copy/paste the spam email (with
headers) and they'll forward it on to the appropriate party for you. You
may be better served using that method. Although, it looks like they make
you sign up with them first nowadays.

-wes

On Thu, Nov 3, 2016 at 9:51 AM, Rich Shepard <rshepard at appl-ecosys.com>
wrote:

>    Whenever a UCE message lands in my inboxes I find the owner of that IP
> address block and forward the message to their 'abuse at ...' address. (Many
> ISPs don't have an abuse user.) So, when my forwarded message with the
> attached malware is immediately rejected by their mail server because it
> contains nasty stuff I have to ask: why didn't they reject it from their
> customer in the first place?
>
>    Is is common for outbound mail to bypass all UCE/spam filters at the
> hosting ISP? I'm curious why their spam filters catch the spam report but
> not the original message.
>
> Rich
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