[PLUG-TALK] Pronouncing 'v' in Spanish

Denis Heidtmann denis.heidtmann at gmail.com
Sat Nov 28 21:07:16 UTC 2020


I do not see two negatives in the sentence.
Does no knowledge mean ignorance?

On Sat, Nov 28, 2020 at 12:31 PM John Jason Jordan <johnxj at gmx.com> wrote:

> On Sat, 28 Nov 2020 11:40:37 -0800
> Denis Heidtmann <denis.heidtmann at gmail.com> dijo:
>
> >Thanks, John.
> >As an aside, I note your statement "No knowledge of Spanish is
> >required." means I am qualified.  Does that mean that someone with
> >knowledge of Spanish is not qualified? Another linguistics question.
> >-Denis
>
> Well, human languages do not use mathematical concepts of negative and
> positive, i.e., two negatives equals a positive. In language two or more
> negatives are normally still negative (multiple negation.) Thus was
> the case in Anglo Saxon, and it perseveres in certain varieties of
> present day English. (In Anglo Saxon using additional negatives merely
> made the negation more emphatic.)
>
> So here you are trying to think that your new utterance 'with knowledge
> of Spanish' must be the negative of the former sentence. But you are
> thinking like a mathematician; a linguist would never make that
> assumption. :)
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